Q.1 Understanding what we are deploying and how we are deploying comes under which practice of DevOps?
1) Deployment Management
2) Configuration Management
3) Release Management
4) Continuous Integration
Ans: 2) Configuration Management
Q.2 DevOps is the union of ___________, ____________ and _________ to enable continuous delivery of value to end users.
1) Programmers, Procedures and Products
2) People, Tools and Applications
3) People, Processes and Products
4) Programs, Poster and Punctuations
Ans: 3) People, Processes and Products
Q.3 I can download DevOps and install it in my computer
1) True
2) False
Ans: False
Q.4 Product Management is one of the 7 DevOps practices.
1) True
2) False
Ans: False
Q.5 DevOps encompasses _______________
1) Automation
2) Resistance
3) Cloud
Ans: 1) Automation
SAP S/4 HANA Questions and answers Hackerrank-solutions
Note: If hard to find then search you question by pressing (Ctrl+f)
Q.1 Materials are assembled or manufactured based on customer order such as factory equipment in_______________
1) Make to Stock (MTS Order)
2) None of the options
3) Engineer to Order (ETO Order)
4) Make to Order (MTO Order)
Ans: 4) Make to Order (MTO Order)
Q.2 Employees of an organization are impacted by ‘Hire to Retire’ processes such as________________
1) Sales Representative
2) All the options
3) Machine Operator
4) Support functions such as finance
Ans: 2) All the options
Q.3 State True or False: The first release of ERP application by SAP was in 1990
1) True
2) False
Ans: 2) False
Q.4 State True or False: SAP S/4HANA is an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) application.
1) True
2) False
Ans: 1) True
Q.5 What consists of activities and processes related to forecast of required materials based on sales strategy, production planning and manufacturing activities till stock is delivered to the stock?
1) Forecast to store
2) Order to cash (OTC)
3) Forecast to stock
4) Procure to Pay cycle (PTP)
Ans: 3) Forecast to stock
Q.6 State True or False: Digital core also known as intelligent ERP
1) True
2) False
Ans: 1) True
Q.7 SAP SE was founded in__________
1) 1977
2) 1982
3) 1990
4) 1972
Ans: 4) 1972
Q.8 The objective of Intelligent Enterprise is to _______________
1) All the options
2) impress customer
3) empower employees
4) automated processes
Ans: 1) All the options
Q.9 SAP S/4HANA has three tier architecture as :
1) Presentation layer, Database, Application Layer
2) None of the options
3) Presentation layer, Application Layer, Database
4) Programming layer, Database, Application Layer
Ans: 3) Presentation layer, Application Layer, Database
Q.10 Examples of enterprise assets which involves complex maintenance of hardware and software are :
1) Steel Plants
2) Rail Line
3) Oil rig, Ship
4) All the options
Ans: 4) All the options
Q.11 Key features of an ERP application:
1) Real time analytics
2) Security and authorization
3) Periodic processing
4) All the options
Ans: 4) All the options
Q.12 State True or False: One of the options to categorize purchase orders can be on the basis of nature of materials and services procured
1) True
2) False
Ans: 1) True
Q.13 Which process includes the activities relating to procurement of materials or obtaining services for the purpose of production activities or internal use?
1) Plan to retire
2) Record to report
3) Forecast to stock
4) Order to cash (OTC)
5) Procure to Pay cycle (PTP)
Ans: 5) Procure to Pay cycle (PTP)
Q.14 SAP intelligent enterprises has key areas as :
1) All the options
2) Intelligent suite
3) Intelligent Technologies
4) Digital platform
Ans: 1) All the options
Q.15 Materials are delivered based on available stock in______________
1) None of the options
2) Make to Stock (MTS Order)
3) Engineer to Order (ETO Order)
4) Make to Order (MTO Order)
Ans: 2) Make to Stock (MTS Order)
Q.16 State True or False: Intelligent suite helps to manage enterprise processes related to customers, employees, supply chain and core processes
1) True
2) False
Ans: 1) True
Q.17 Enterprise Resource Planning is an enterprise application to manage_______________
1) customer related issues
2) business processes of the organization
3) None of the options
4) personal processes of employees)
Ans: 2) business processes of the organization
Q.18 Components of Digital platform:
1) Customer experience & People engagement
2) Data Management & Cloud Platform
3) None of the options
4) Customer experience & digital core
Ans: 2) Data Management & Cloud Platform
Q.19 SAP S/4HANA is the latest solution from SAP in this portfolio category, also known as____________
1) Intelligent Technologies
2) Digital Platform
3) CRM
4) Digital Core
Ans: 4) Digital Core
Q.20 State True or False: ‘Record to Report’ (R2R) process involves recording of financial transactions, processing of financial transactions and reporting them in accordance to legal requirements and as per management accounting
1) True
2) False
Ans: 1) True
Q.21 ‘Hire to Retire’ process consists of activities related to _____________
1) Workforce Management
2) Delivery of materials
3) All the options
4) quality control
Ans: 1) Workforce Management
Q.22 Digital platform consist of many applications from SAP for____________
1) enterprise information management
2) cybersecurity
3) data management
4) All the options
Ans: 4) All the options
Q.23 Latest solution by SAP for CRM & Customer Experience available on Cloud:
1) Ariba
2) Concur
3) SAP C/4HANA
4) FieldGlass
Ans: 3) SAP C/4HANA
Q.24 SAP plans to replace all implementations of ERP to S/4HANA by:
1) 2021
2) 2025
3) 2020
4) 2030
Ans: 2025
Q.25 Which process involves collecting business transactions, processing and reporting them?
1) Record to report
2) Procure to Pay cycle (PTP)
3) Collect to report
4) Order to cash (OTC)
5) Hire to retire
Ans: 1) Record to report
Q.26 A business process is influenced by _____________________
1) Technology Advancement
2) People
3) Changing Market
4) All the options
5) Complexity
Ans: 4) All the options
Q.27 SAP stands for:
1) Systems, Applications & Products in Data Processing
2) Systems, Applications & Procedures
3) Software Applications & Procedures
4) Software Applications & Programming in Data Packaging
Ans: 1) Systems, Applications & Products in Data Processing
Q.28 Supply chain refers to business processes which are required to___________
1) move a material or service from consumer to supplier
2) move a material or service from supplier to consumer
Ans: 2) move a material or service from supplier to consumer
Q.29 Activities which are normally carried out during ‘Forecast to Stock’ process are:
1) Demand management, Material requirement planning , Capacity planning
2) Evaluation of supplier, Receipt of requirement , Placing an order on supplier
3) Record and maintain customer order details, Check availability of materials
4) None of the options
Ans: 1) Demand management, Material requirement planning , Capacity planning
Q.30 Forecast To Stock' includes______________
1) recording cost of manufacturing
2) quality control
3) Both A&B
4) None of the options
Ans: 3) Both A&B
Q.31 Key applications from SAP in HR and People Engagement portfolio:
1) SAP Integrated Business Planning (IBP)
2) SAP ARIBA
3) SAP SuccessFactors
4) SAP Concur
Ans: 3) SAP SuccessFactors
Q.32 State True or False: Opportunity to Order Succeeds ‘Order to Cash’ process
1) True
2) False
Ans: 2) False
Q.33 BPML in SAP stands for:
1) Business process master list
2) Business process markup language
3) Business process modelling list
4) Business process manual list
Ans: 1) Business process master list
Q.34 SAP roadmaps are published on____________
1) Yearly basis
2) Cannot be determined
3) Quarterly basis
4) Monthly Basis
Ans: 3) Quarterly basis
Q.35 Internet of Things, Big data, Analytics, Machine Learning, digital assistant comes under:
1) SAP Leonardo
2) SAP ARIBA
3) SAP Integrated Business Planning (IBP)
4) SAP Concur
Ans: 1) SAP Leonardo
Q.36 High level activities which are normally carried out during ‘Plan to Maintain’ process are:
1) Acquisition process of assets, Maintenance of equipment, Retirement of equipment
2) Record and maintain customer order details, Check availability of materials
3) Demand management, Material requirement planning , Capacity planning
4) Evaluation of supplier, Receipt of requirement , Placing an order on supplier
Ans: 1) Acquisition process of assets, Maintenance of equipment, Retirement of equipment
Q.37 Which process involves set of activities from customer inquiry, quotation, order delivery to billing and subsequent collection of receivables?
1) Order to cash (OTC)
2) Forecast to stock
3) Record to report
4) Procure to Pay cycle (PTP)
5) Plan to retire
Ans: 1) Order to cash (OTC)
Q.38 State True or False: ‘Plan to Maintain’ process consists of activities related to planning, acquisition and maintenance of equipment and assets of an organization
1) True
2) False
Ans: 1) True
Quiz Handson - AWS- Amazon Web Services- HackerRank Questions and answers Fresco Play - AWS Access Management - Final Assessment
Q.1 What is the practice of distributing responsibility among multiple people so that no one person has full control of everything?
1) Responsibility sharing
2) Separation of duties
3) Separation of responsibility
4) None
Ans: 2) Separation of duties
Q.2 Security is still considered as the major hurdle for businesses to opt for cloud.
1) True
2) False
Ans: True
Q.3 You can set up your password policy for users in IAM.
1) True
2) False
Ans: True
Q.4 AWS Identity and Access Management are available through ____________ interfaces.
1) Query API
2) Management console
3) AWS CLI
4) All the options
Ans: 4) All the options
Q.5 An IAM role that grants permissions to an AWS service so it can access AWS resources. The policies that you attach to it determine which AWS resources the service can access and what it can do with those resources
1) Granted role
2) selector role
3) service role
4) permission role
Ans: 3) service role
Q.6 You can change the properties but not the user name using a console in IAM.
1) True
2) False
Ans: 1) True
Q.7 Every user you create in IAM starts with _______.
1) None of the options
2) Partial permissions
3) No access
4) Full access
Ans: 3) No access
Q.8 Is it recommended to use the root account for regular use?
1) True
2) False
Ans: False
Q.9 Which IAM policy provides full access to resources in it but not for IAM ?
1) Administrator
2) Power user
3) Support user
4) System Administrator
Ans: 2) Power user
Q.10 Service linked roles are predefined by ____________.
1) Policy
2) Service
3) AWS
4) None of the options
Ans: 2) Service
Q.11 AWS Global Infrastructure consists of__________.
1) Edge Locations
2) Availability Zones
3) All the options
4) Regions
Ans: 3) All the options
Q.12 Temporary security credentials are not stored with users.
1) True
2) False
Ans: True
Q.13 The operating system, data encryption, and network traffic protection fall under the responsibilities of ______.
1) AWS
2) None of the options
3) Customers
4) Both the options
Ans: 3) Customers
Q.14 The security of the cloud is the responsibility of ___________.
1) AWS
2) None of the options
3) Customers
4) Both the options
Ans: 1) AWS
Q.15 Using which of the following a user is validated by AWS to use a particular resource ?
1) Role
2) Policy
3) MFA
4) Access Keys
Ans: 2) Policy
Q.16 A practice that adds increased security to an account by using multiple forms of authentication is ______________.
1) Logging
2) Root logging
3) MFA
4) None of the options
Ans: 3) MFA
Q.17 The _________ policy template gives the Admins group permission to access all account resources, except your AWS account information.
1) Power user access
2) Read only access
3) All the options
4) Administrator access
Ans: 4) Administrator access
Q.18 IAM user needs to use both the access key ID and secret access key to make API calls.
1) True
2) False
Ans: True
Quiz Handson - AWS- Amazon Web Services- HackerRank Questions and answers Fresco Play - AWS Access Management - 3
AWS Access Management -3 FRESCO PLAY - T-FACTOR course
Q.1 Temporary security credentials are not stored with users.
1) False
2) True
Ans: 2) True
Q.2 Role chaining is generally used in identity federation.
1) False
2) True
Ans: 2) True
Q.3 An IAM role that grants permissions to an AWS service so it can access AWS resources. The policies that you attach to it determine which AWS resources the service can access and what it can do with those resources
1) service role
2) selector role
3) permission role
4) Granted role
Ans: 1) service role
Q.4 Roles can be assigned to other AWS services.
1) False
2) True
Ans: 2) True
Q.5 ________ is an inherent part of an IAM role, and it specifies the principals that are allowed to use the role.
1) Trust policy
2) Signed policy
3) None of the options
4) Principle policy
Ans: 1) Trust policy
Q.6 Service linked roles are predefined by ______.
1) Policy
2) AWS
3) Service
4) None of the options
Ans: 3) Service
Quiz Handson - AWS- Amazon Web Services- HackerRank Questions and answers Fresco Play - AWS Access Management - 2
AWS Access Management -2 FRESCO PLAY - T-FACTOR course
Q.1 __________ is used to validate a user by AWS to use a particular resource.
1) Policy
2) Access Keys
3) MFA
4) Role
Ans: 1) Policy
Q.2 Custom policies are written in ____________.
1) text
2) XML
3) JSON
4) All the options
Ans: 3) JSON
Q.3 The maximum number of users that an AWS account can have is ________.
1) 500
2) 100
3) 1000
4) 5000
Ans: 4) 5000
Q.4 IAM user needs to use both the access key ID and secret access key to make API calls.
1) True
2) False
Ans: 1) True
Q.5 Which IAM policy provides permissions to resolve issues with AWS?
1) Support user
2) System Administrator
3) Administrator
4) Power user
Ans: 1) Support user
Q.6 Which IAM feature helps in managing users external to IAM?
1) Policies
2) Identity federation
3) MFA
4) Roles
Ans: 2) Identity federation
Q.7 You can set up your password policy for users in IAM.
1) True
2) False
Ans: 1) True
Q.8 Which IAM policy provides full access to resources in it but not for IAM?
1) Support user
2) System Administrator
3) Administrator
4) Power user
Ans: 4) Power user
Quiz Handson - AWS- Amazon Web Services- HackerRank Questions and answers Fresco Play - AWS Access Management -1
AWS Access Management FRESCO PLAY - T-FACTOR course
Q.1 Is it necessary to have a new bucket for CloudTrail logs?
1) True
2) False
Ans: 2) False
Q.2 Is it recommended to use the root account for regular use?
1) True
2) False
Ans: 2) False
Q.3 The security of the cloud is the responsibility of ____________.
1) None of the options
2) AWS
3) Customers
4) Both AWS and customers
Ans: 2) AWS
Q.4 Which of the following service is used in the Data Exfiltration process in the cloud watch?
1) EC2
2) S3
3) IAM
4) AWS Lambda
Ans: 4) AWS Lambda
Q.5 An operating system, data encryption, and network traffic protection falls under the responsibilities of ___________.
1) None of the options
2) AWS
3) Both AWS and customers
4) Customers
Ans:4) Customers
Q.6 Existing identity management systems like Microsoft AD can be integrated into AWS to manage permissions.
1) True
2) False
Ans: 1) True
Q.7 AWS CloudTrail records all the API interactions and stores the data in S3 Buckets.
1) True
2) False
Ans:1) True
Q. 8 AWS Global Infrastructure consists of __________.
1) Regions
2) Availability Zones
3) Edge Locations
4) All the options
Ans: 4) All the options
Q.9 Which of the following AWS service helps in the overall management of Security in the cloud?
1) Aurora
2) VPC
3) Cloudwatch
4) IAM
Ans: 4) IAM
Quiz Handson - AWS- Amazon Web Services- HackerRank Questions and answers Fresco Play - AWS ESSENTIALS - 3
AWS ESSENTIALS FRESCO PLAY - T-FACTOR course
Q.1 Charges for code commit are based on active users.1) True
2) False
Ans: True
Q.2 Route 53 can be used to route users to infrastructure outside of AWS.
1) True
2) False
Ans: 1) True
Q.3 EC2 stands for __________.
1) Elastic Cloud Computer
2) Electronic Cloud Computer
3) Elastic Compute Cloud
4) Electronic Compute Cloud
Ans: 3) Elastic Compute Cloud
Q.4 Which service in AWS allows you to create and delete stacks of AWS resources which are defined in templates?
1) CloudFront
2) Redshift
3) CloudFormation
4) Route 53
Ans: 3) CloudFormation
Q.5 I have some private servers on my premises. Also, I have distributed some of my workloads on the public cloud. What is this architecture called?
1) Virtual Private Network
2) Virtual Private Cloud
3) Private Cloud
4) Hybrid Cloud
Ans: 3) CloudFormation
Q.6 Cloud-computing providers offer their services as ______________.
1) EaaS
2) XaaS
3) IaaS
4) IaaS,Paas,Saas
5) PaaS
6) SaaS
Ans: 4) IaaS,Paas,Saas
Q.7 Which of the following service is used for fast and reliable application updates and bug fixes?
1) Code Deploy
2) code pipeline
3) code commit
4) code build
Ans: 2) code pipeline
Q.8 Developers and organizations all around the world leverage ______ extensively.
1) SaaS
2) IaaS
3) XaaS
4) PaaS
Ans: 4) PaaS
Q.9 All Amazon services support region-based services.
1) True
2) False
Ans: 2) False
Q.10 How can you restrict the access to the contents delivered in CloudFront?
1) bucket policy
2) All the options mentioned
3) IAM
4) Origin access identity
Ans: 4) Origin access identity
Q.11 Autoscaling is enabled through ____________.
1) Virtual Private Cloud
2) CloudFront
3) Route 53
4) CloudWatch
Ans: 4) CloudWatch
Q.12 Amazon CloudFormation is a ___________.
1) Content delivery service
2) Application service
3) Deployment and management service
4) Networking service
Ans: 3) Deployment and management service
Q.13 A highly available and scalable domain name system and web service is ___________.
1) Amazon Route 53
2) Amazon Workspaces
3) Amazon VPC
4) Amazon Direct Connect
Ans: 1) Amazon Route 53
Q.14 Which AWS services will you use to collect and process e-commerce data for near real-time analysis?
1) None of the options
2) Amazon Redshift
3) Both DynamoDB & Redshift
4) Amazon DynamoDB
Ans: 3) Both DynamoDB & Redshift
Q.15 Which of the following is not correct about Elastic Load Balancing?
1) achieves greater fault tolerance
2) Can be enabled only in a single availability zone
3) detects unhealthy instances and reroutes
4) automatically distributes traffic
Ans: 2) Can be enabled only in a single availability zone
Q.16 In S3, what does RRS stand for?
1) Reduced Refined Storage
2) Repeated Redundancy Storage
3) Reduced Repeated Storage
4) Reduced Redundancy Storage
Ans: 4) Reduced Redundancy Storage
Q.17 Certain traditional software vendors market their solutions as “Cloud Computing”, which does not meet the key characteristics highlighted by NIST. This phenomenon is known as _____________.
1) Cloud computwatch
2) Cloud servicing
3) Cloud washing
4) Cloud computing
Ans: 3) Cloud washing
Q.18 Which of the following is not true about Amazon Glacier?
1) Optimized for data for which retrieval times of several hours are suitable
2) Secure and durable storage for data archiving and backup
3) Optimized for data that is infrequently accessed
4) Services enables rapid disaster recovery
Ans: 4) Services enables rapid disaster recovery
Q.19 Which of these services are used to distribute content to end users using a global network of edge locations?
1) CloudWatch
2) Route 53
3) CloudFront
4) Virtual Private Cloud
Ans: 3) CloudFront
Q.20 What is an AMI?
1) Amazon Machine Image
2) Amazon Machine Integer
3) Amazon Material Image
4) Amazon Machine Index
Ans: 1) Amazon Machine Image
Quiz Handson - AWS- Amazon Web Services- HackerRank Questions and answers Fresco Play - AWS ESSENTIALS 2
AWS ESSENTIALS FRESCO PLAY - T-FACTOR course
Q . 1 Which of the following services is free?
1) code pipeline
2) code commit
3) code build
4) code deploy
Ans: 4) code deploy
1) Content Delivery Network (CDN)
2) Amazon Route 53
3) Amazon Elastic Load Balancing
4) Amazon EC2
Ans: 1) Content Delivery Network (CDN)
Q.3 Which of the following service is used for fast and reliable application updates and bug fixes?
1) code deploy
2) code build
3) code commit
4) code pipeline
Ans: 4) code pipeline
Q.4 WAF stands for ___________
1) Wireless Application File
2) Web Application Firewall
3) Wide Application Filter
4) Web Access Firewall
Ans: 2) Web Application Firewall
Q. 5 Charges for code commit are based on the active users.
1) True
2) False
Ans: True
Q.6 ___________enables you to manage access to AWS services and resources securely.
1) AWS Artifact
2) AWS WAF
3) AWS Identity and Access Management
4) Amazon Inspector
Ans: 3) AWS Identity and Access Management
Q. 7 ____________is used to track user activity and API usage.
1) Amazon CloudWatch
2) Amazon EC2 Systems Manager
3) AWS CloudTrail
4) AWS Cloud Formation
Ans: 3) AWS CloudTrail
Q. 8 Which of the following service is used for fast and reliable application updates and bug fixes?
1) code build
2) code pipeline
3) code commit
4) code deploy
Ans: 2) code pipeline
2) Amazon Route 53
3) Amazon Elastic Load Balancing
4) Amazon EC2
Ans: 1) Content Delivery Network (CDN)
2) code build
3) code commit
4) code pipeline
Ans: 4) code pipeline
1) Wireless Application File
2) Web Application Firewall
3) Wide Application Filter
4) Web Access Firewall
Ans: 2) Web Application Firewall
1) True
2) False
Ans: True
1) AWS Artifact
2) AWS WAF
3) AWS Identity and Access Management
4) Amazon Inspector
Ans: 3) AWS Identity and Access Management
1) Amazon CloudWatch
2) Amazon EC2 Systems Manager
3) AWS CloudTrail
4) AWS Cloud Formation
Ans: 3) AWS CloudTrail
1) code build
2) code pipeline
3) code commit
4) code deploy
Ans: 2) code pipeline
1) bucket policy
2) IAM
3) All the options mentioned
4) Origin access identity
Ans: 4) Origin access identity
1) CloudWatch
2) Route 53
3) CloudFront
4) Virtual Private Cloud
Ans: 3) CloudFront
1) CloudFront can stream content using RTMP(real time messaging protocol)
2) CloudFront can serve both static and dynamic content
3) CloudFront cannot serve content from a non AWS origin server
4) CloudFront can serve both compressed and uncompressed files
Ans: 3) CloudFront cannot serve content from a non AWS origin server
1) The user's requests are routed to the edge location in the country from which the request originates
2) The user's request is routed to the origin server
3) The user's request is routed to the nearest edge location
4) For countries without edge location, requests are routed to the origin server
Ans: 3) The user's request is routed to the nearest edge location
Quiz Handson - AWS- Amazon Web Services- HackerRank Questions and answers Fresco Play -1
Q.1 Developers and organizations all around the world leverage ______ extensively.
1) EaaS
2) IaaS, Paas, Saas
3) SaaS
4) PaaS
Q. 3 __________are separate physical data centers that may exist within a particular region, but has separate infrastructure dependencies.
1) Regions
2) Local Zone
3) Availability zones
4) Edge locations
Q.4 ___________ characteristics of cloud is used to increase or decrease the resources based on the requirements
1) On-demand self-service
2 ) Rapid elasticity
3) Resource pooling
4) Broad network access
Q.5 The committee that designs the standards and characteristics for cloud computing is ______________.
1) NIFT
2 ) NCCC
3) NICT
4) NIST
Q.6 Which of the following are advantages of cloud computing?
1) Variable as opposed to upfront
2 ) Fixed cost
3) Economics of scale can reduce Operating cost
4) It's easier to match capacity to demand
5) All the above
Ans: 5) All the above
Q. 7 You are using an S3 bucket through which you are running a photo sharing website. It is found that some of the other sites owners are also using your bucket URL and causing a loss to your business. How will you protect your buckets content from unauthorized usage?
1) None of the options
2 ) Utilize bucket polices, ACLs, and user policies
3) NICT
4) Deleting data after usage
Ans: 2 ) Utilize bucket polices, ACLs, and user policies
Q. 8 What does S3 stand for?
1) Single Storage Service
2 ) Storage Simple Service
3) Super Storage Service
4) Simple Storage Service
Q. 9 In S3, what does RRS stand for?
1) Reduced Redundancy Storage
2 ) Repeated Redundancy Storage
3) Reduced Repeated Storage
4) Reduced Refined Storage
Ans: 1) Reduced Redundancy Storage
Q. 10 What is an AMI?
1) Amazon Material Image
2 ) Amazon Machine Index
3) Amazon Machine Image
4) Amazon Machine Integer
Ans: 3) Amazon Machine Image
Q. 11 EC2 stands for _________.
1) Elastic Compute Cloud
2 ) Electronic Compute Cloud
3) Electronic Cloud Computer
4) Elastic Cloud Computer
Ans: 1) Elastic Compute Cloud
1) PaaS
2) IaaS
3) Xaas
4) Saas
Ans: 1) PaaS
1) EaaS
2) IaaS, Paas, Saas
3) SaaS
4) PaaS
Ans: 2) IaaS, Paas, Saas
Q. 3 __________are separate physical data centers that may exist within a particular region, but has separate infrastructure dependencies.
2) Local Zone
3) Availability zones
4) Edge locations
Ans: 3) Availability zones
1) On-demand self-service
2 ) Rapid elasticity
3) Resource pooling
4) Broad network access
Ans: 2 ) Rapid elasticity
2 ) NCCC
3) NICT
4) NIST
Ans: 4) NIST
1) Variable as opposed to upfront
2 ) Fixed cost
3) Economics of scale can reduce Operating cost
4) It's easier to match capacity to demand
5) All the above
Ans: 5) All the above
1) None of the options
2 ) Utilize bucket polices, ACLs, and user policies
3) NICT
4) Deleting data after usage
Ans: 2 ) Utilize bucket polices, ACLs, and user policies
1) Single Storage Service
2 ) Storage Simple Service
3) Super Storage Service
4) Simple Storage Service
Ans: 4) Simple Storage Service
1) Reduced Redundancy Storage
2 ) Repeated Redundancy Storage
3) Reduced Repeated Storage
4) Reduced Refined Storage
Ans: 1) Reduced Redundancy Storage
1) Amazon Material Image
2 ) Amazon Machine Index
3) Amazon Machine Image
4) Amazon Machine Integer
Ans: 3) Amazon Machine Image
1) Elastic Compute Cloud
2 ) Electronic Compute Cloud
3) Electronic Cloud Computer
4) Elastic Cloud Computer
Ans: 1) Elastic Compute Cloud
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